Quote# 39307
Biblical or not, the crime of "rape" requires a lack of female consent. Hence, a wife who has vowed her consent before her family and priest, and signed documents of her consent before witnesses that were filed and recorded by the state, has given her consent. Therefore, the crime of "rape" is absent of the requirement of lack of female consent.
The whole notion of "marital rape" requires that you deny the meaning and vows of marriage. If a state has a statute allowing "marital rape" they must also have denied the meaning of marriage. There is no marriage in any political jurisdiction where "marital rape" is on its law books. They have switched to a femiNazi anti-marriage denial of the basis for marriage and denied its meaning.
To understand the whole topic we have to go back to the purpose and meaning of marriage.
Marriage is the biological union of a man and woman to produce a child and family, and concurrently the social structure that forms the family that is created.
The vows of marriage are very important to the lives of the people involved. When she says "I DO" a woman vows to engage in sex with her husband, to get pregnant, and to raise the children which result together in a family with the husband.
When a man says "I DO" he vows to engage in sex with the wife so that she will become pregnant, and to support her and the children which result from that biological union.
In order even to contemplate "marital rape" you have to deny the meaning of the woman's "I DO" vows of marriage. You have to deny the whole meaning of marriage. You have to throw out all the marriages because they have become meaningless under law.
Blessings
Bob
bobx23456,
Antimisandry.com Forums 72 Comments [5/15/2008 11:10:28 AM]
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